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Rachel杏怡 · 2024年09月17日

Delta Gamma

NO.PZ2018122701000048

问题如下:

A portfolio manager owns a portfolio of options on a non-dividend paying stock RTX. The portfolio is made up of 10,000 deep in-the-money call options on RTX and 50,000 deep out-of-the money call options on RTX. The portfolio also contains 20,000 forward contracts on RTX. RTX is trading at USD 100. If the volatility of RTX is 30% per-year, which of the following amounts would be closest to the 1-day VaR of the portfolio at the 95 percent confidence level, assuming 252 trading days in a year?

选项:

A.

USD 932

B.

USD 93,263

C.

USD 111,122

D.

USD 131,892

解释:

B is correct.

考点 Mapping to Option Position

解析 We need to map the portfolio to a position in the underlying stock RTX. A deep in-the-money call has a delta of approximately 1, a deep out-of-the-money call has delta of approximately 0 and forwards have a delta of 1. The net portfolio has a delta of about 30,000 and is approximately gamma neutral. The 1-day VaR estimate at 95 percent confidence level is computed as follows:

α×S××σ×SQRT(1/T)=1.645×100×30000×0.3×SQRT(1/252)=93263

老师, 能解释一下 为什么delta gamma neutral ? 这个 没看懂

1 个答案
已采纳答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年09月17日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


不是delta gamma neutral,只是gamma neutral。


由于deep in the money call的delta是1(因为深度实值call,类似于股票本身),而深度虚值call的delta是0(不值钱)。而forward的delta等于1,所以整个投资组合的delta是30000.


另外,平值期权的gamma是最大的,而深度实值与深度虚值的gamma近似为0,forward的gamma也是0,所以整个投资组合是gamma = 0,也就是gamma neutral。


这样的话,计算投资组合的VaR直接套用公式:

由于gamma(就是减号后面的Γ)为0,所以VaR = delta * VaR(dS) = delta * (α * S* σ * 根号(1/252)),delta也可以写成△.


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