NO.PZ2020011901000054
问题如下：
An investor buys 100 shares in an open-end mutual fund on January 1 of a year for USD 30. The fund earns dividends of USD 1 per share in the first year and USD 2 per share in the second year. These dividends are reinvested by the fund. The capital gains in the first year are USD 3, and the capital gains in the second year are USD 4. The investor sells the shares for USD 43 in the third year. Explain how the investor is taxed.
选项：
解释：
The investor will pay tax on the investment income from dividends of USD 100 in the first year and on USD 200 in the second year. The investor will also pay tax on capital gains of USD 300 in the first year and USD 400 in the second year. The investor’s basis at the start of the third year will be USD 40 per share (= 30 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4) or USD 4,000 in total. The shares are sold for USD 4,300. Tax is therefore payable on USD 300 in the third year.
1.我看了一下其他人的疑问，感觉没有问的十分清楚。
我这里理解有两层的税，我们Fund层面因为再投资了，所以Fund层面不需要交任何税（也就是说从fund 直接扣除的税是没有的）
2.第二层面是从投资者这里每年来看，第一年的时候，虽然投资者还没有赎回，但是他的dividend & CG都需要交税，这一部分是100*div tax+300*CG tax，然后这个tax 是投资者额外从自己资产里面交给tax department,第二年同理，他需要交200*div tax+400*CG tax
3.第三年，beginning asset =40, ending asset=43,所以他按照43块卖出，但没说这个3块钱包含div， 所以默认都是CG, 以CG的税率来征收，也就是3*100*CG tax，因为他realized这部分钱，所以会收到43，之后在报税的时候再给这个3*100通过自己的户口给tax department交税。
我上面说的对吗？如果不对，麻烦再具体说一下。好不清楚的感觉。
