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C_M_ · 2024年09月14日

I&III

NO.PZ2023100703000053

问题如下:

Which of these statements regarding risk factor mapping approaches is/are correct? I.Under the cash flow mapping approach, only the risk associated with the average maturity of a fixed-income portfolio is mapped. II.Cash flow mapping is the least precise method of risk mapping for a fixed-income portfolio. III.Under the duration mapping approach, the risk of a bond is mapped to a zero-coupon bond of the same duration. IV.Using more risk factors generally leads to better risk measurement but also requires more time to be devoted to the modeling process and risk computation.

选项:

A.I and II

B.I, III, and IV

C.III and IV

D.IV only

解释:

Under the cash flow mapping approach, each payment (and not only the last one) is associated with a different risk factor, so statement I. is incorrect. Statement II.is incorrect because the CF mapping approach is more correct than duration or maturity mapping.

I是错在avg maturity吗 III一定是map到zero-coupon bond with same maturity吗 带coupon的为什么不行

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年09月15日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


I. 里描述的,是principal mapping:


而cash flow mapping是考虑了投资组合的每一个年限的现金流:



III. 如果投资组合的久期是2.73,那么只需要找到一个2.73年到期的零息债券,这个零息债券的久期恰好也是2.73年,这样最方便。

如果你用带coupon的债券,那无法保证2.73年到期的coupon债券的久期也恰好等于2.73。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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