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葛峰杰 · 2024年08月04日

以下这道题求解答 我没有看懂公式的意思

No.PZ2023122502000032 (选择题)

来源:

A technology company, reporting under US GAAP, has three classes of intangible assets. The table below shows information on each of the three classes (in USD thousands):

Based on the data provided, the intangible asset that has the largest absolute impairment charge for the period ended 31 December of Year 2 is:

您的回答C, 正确答案是: B

A

goodwill.

B

licenses.

C

不正确computer software.

数据统计(全部)

做对次数: 5

做错次数: 58

正确率: 7.94%

数据统计(个人)

做对次数: 0

做错次数: 0

正确率: 0%

解析

Solution

A Incorrect because the amount of the impairment charge due to goodwill is less than that of licenses. The goodwill impairment charge for 20X2 in dollars = 73,194 – (65,321 + 7,324) = 549.

B Correct because licenses will have the largest dollar impairment charge on the income statement due to the size of the implied impairment charge, which is calculated as: Accumulated impairment losses and amortization as of 31 December Year 1– (Accumulated impairment losses and amortization as of 31 December Year 1+ Exchange movements + Amortization charge for year + Net Additions (Disposals)). In this case the largest impairment loss that will be reported is due to licenses. Impairment charge due to licenses = 10,856 – (8,243 + 821 + 1,244 – 25) = 573.

C Incorrect because the amount of the impairment charge due to computer software is less than that of licenses. The computer software impairment charge for 20X2 in dollars = 8,214 – (5,257 + 334 + 2,102) = 521.

Analysis of Long-Term Assets

analyze and interpret financial statement disclosures regarding property, plant, and equipment and intangible assets

3 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2024年08月10日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


Beginning +Addition-Substraction=Ending


期初余额+本期增加-本期减少=期末余额


The goodwill impairment charge for 20X2 in dollars = 73,194期末余额 – (65,321期初余额 + 7,324本期增加) = 549.


只是后面这两个公式本期增加多一点


 Accumulated impairment losses and amortization 是资产负债表科目


 Accumulated impairment losses and amortization as of 31 December Year 2期末余额– (Accumulated impairment losses and amortization as of 31 December Year 1期初余额 + Exchange movements + Amortization charge for year + Net Additions (Disposals)这几项都是增加项


等于条件没给全,考的公式就是BASE法则,这道题没什么参考价值。




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葛峰杰 · 2024年08月09日

这3个公式老师能写一下嘛?

lynn_品职助教 · 2024年08月05日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


本题使用BASE法则,第一年的累计数据加减变动数据,等于第二年累计数据,倒推出impairment charge for the year即可


原版书是有类似表格的,是从footnotes里摘录出来的,提供的信息是intangible asset账面价值从期初到期末的变动情况,这个表格数据都给的很全,期初期末的金额都有,导致其变化的各项数字也都有(除impairment),可以计算出impairment charge的金额。可以通过这道题目了解一下附注里这种表格所表达的含义,数字之间的勾稽关系就知道了。


这道题有数据没给全,标黄的数据题目应该给出。


The goodwill impairment charge for 20X2 in dollars = 73,194 – (65,321 + 7,324) = 549.

Impairment charge due to licenses = 10,856 – (8,243 + 821 + 1,244 – 25) = 573.

The computer software impairment charge for 20X2 in dollars = 8,214 – (5,257 + 334 + 2,102) = 521.

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