问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
求解释解答里面第一个公式,谢谢
1.16. 1.25. C is correct. The present value of future cash flows is PV=2,0000.08=25,000PV=\frac{2,000}{0.08}=25,000PV=0.082,000=25,000 The profitability inx is PI=PVinvestment=25,00020,000=1.25PI=\frac{PV}{investment}=\frac{25,000}{20,000}=1.25PI=investmentPV=20,00025,000=1.25 以及,如果算PV的话,不是应该要知道N是多少吗?perpetual怎么用?
1.16. 1.25. C is correct. The present value of future cash flows is PV=2,0000.08=25,000PV=\frac{2,000}{0.08}=25,000PV=0.082,000=25,000 The profitability inx is PI=PVinvestment=25,00020,000=1.25PI=\frac{PV}{investment}=\frac{25,000}{20,000}=1.25PI=investmentPV=20,00025,000=1.25 可否详细写出用1+NPV/CF0 这个公式解答的全过程?谢谢。
请问计算PI 的答案里为什么不是 1+NPV/CF0? 讲义上是加了1的
老师,为什么PV不是2000/1.08?