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Olivia Zhang · 2024年04月04日

本道题求分红现值时的折现因子为什么是3%/12

NO.PZ2023091802000137

问题如下:

A non-dividend-paying stock is currently trading at USD 40 and has an expected return of 12% per year. Using the Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) model, a 1-year, European-style call option on the stock is valued at USD 1.78.

The parameters used in the model are:

N(d1) = 0.29123

N(d2) = 0.20333

The next day, the company announces that it will pay a dividend of USD 0.5 per share to holders of the stock on an ex-dividend date 1 month from now and has no further dividend payout plans for at least 1 year. This new information does not affect the current stock price, but the BSM model inputs change, so that:

N(d1) = 0.29928

N(d2) = 0.20333

If the risk-free rate is 3% per year, what is the new BSM call price? (Practice Exam)

选项:

A.

USD 1.61

B.

USD 1.78

C.

USD 1.95

D.

USD 2.11

解释:

The value of a European call is equal to SN(d1) – Ke – rTN(d2), where S is the current price of the stock. In the case that dividends are introduced, S in the formula is reduced by the present value of the dividends. Furthermore, the announcement would affect the values of S, d1 and d2. However, since we are given the new values, and d2 is the same, the change in the price of the call is only dependent on the term S × N(d1).

Previous S × N(d1) = 40 × 0.29123 = 11.6492

New S × N(d1) = (40 – (0.5 × exp(-3%/12)) × 0.29928 = 11.8219

Change = 11.8219 – 11.6492 = 0.1727

So the new BSM call price would increase in value by 0.1727, which when added to the previous price of 1.78 equals 1.9527.

解析里,3%哪里来的,应该是12%/12吗?

1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2024年04月04日

同学你好,题目最后的问题就是If the risk-free rate is 3% per year, what is the new BSM call price? 

分后就是实打实的现金0.5元了,只需要用rf来折现即可,不用expected return of stock

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