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乔。 · 2024年01月30日

算的不对,麻烦帮忙写一下过程

NO.PZ2023052301000046

问题如下:

Consider a bond that has three years remaining to maturity, a coupon of 4% paid semiannually, and a yield-to-maturity of 4.60%. Assuming it is 12 days into the first coupon period and a 30/360 basis, the bond’s annualized Macaulay duration is closest to:

选项:

A.

1.8764 years.

B.

2.8386 years.

C.

2.8553 years.

解释:

B is correct.


第一笔现金流:

PVCF1 = PMT /【(1+I/Y)^(n- t/T)】= 4/ (1+4.6%)^(1-12/360)=3.829

P0= 100✖️[1+PMT coupon^( t/T) ] = 100✖️(1+4.6%)^(12/360)=100.15

t= n- t/T = 1- 12/360

W1= PVCF1 / P0 ✖️ t  = 3.829 / 100.15 ✖️(1-12/360)=0.0369

第二笔现金流:

PVCF1 = PMT /【(1+I/Y)^(n- t/T)】= 4/ (1+4.6%)^(2-12/360)= 3.66

P0= 100✖️[1+ I/Y ^( t/T) ] = 100✖️(1+4.6%)^(12/360)=100.15

t= n- t/T = 2- 12/360 =1.966

W2= PVCF1 / P0 ✖️ t  = 3.66 / 100.15 ✖️(2-12/360)=0.0718

第三笔现金流:

PVCF1 =(PMT +FV)/【(1+I/Y)^(n- t/T)】= (100+4)/(1+4.6%)^(3-12/360)= 91.01

P0= 100✖️[1+ I/Y ^( t/T) ] = 100✖️(1+4.6%)^(12/360)=100.15

t= n- t/T = 3- 12/360 =2.9667

W3= PVCF1 / P0 ✖️ t  = 91.01 / 100.15 ✖️2.9667=2.69

 

0.0369+0.0718+ 2.69 = ?不对



2 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa015 · 2024年01月30日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,题目说了,是半年付息,所以应该有6笔现金流。

那么你计算的只有3笔现金流,就肯定是不对的了。

答案的表格给了计算过程,这道题有bug,表格中计算的mac duration是2.8820,但选项没有。

不过不要紧,掌握mac duration的计算过程就好了,

mac duration=∑(PVCFi/P)*t,

这道题出的比较复杂,考试应该没有这样难度的题。

一般情况最多会给3笔现金流,这三笔现金流都是coupon,发生时间分别是1、2、3,然后给折现率,

先计算出两笔coupon以及第三笔par+coupon的现值

然后套用∑(PVCFi/P)*t,就可以得到mac duration。

额,这道题同学不用纠结计算过程了。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

乔。 · 2024年01月30日

所以,这个题是可以直接放弃嘛,那个表格过程我看不懂

pzqa015 · 2024年01月31日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


嗯 可以放弃。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

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