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daiwin18 · 2024年01月07日

关于组合macaulay duration 的计算

NO.PZ2023032703000027

问题如下:

Berendsen explains to Adams, “I plan to continue saving for retirement, regularly adding funds to the portfolio until I retire, and I would like a low-risk solution to provide additional retirement income.”

Adams replies to Berendsen, “We focus on the ability of the portfolio to meet future cash flow needs and seek to immunize the liabilities as an objective in the management of the portfolio. If the fixed-income portfolio achieves an average annual investment return of at least 4% for the next four years, the proceeds of its liquidation will be enough to purchase an annuity sufficient to provide the funds needed to supplement your Social Security benefits.

Adams has summarized Berendsen’s (the client) fixed-income portfolio consisting of three government bonds in Exhibit 1. The yield curve has steepened since the bonds were purchased, which can be seen by comparing their respective yield to maturities (YTMs) of the purchase price yield to today’s yield.


According to the information in Exhibit 1 and assuming Berendsen retires in four years, the fixed-income portfolio most likely: (2019 mock AM)

选项:

A.

should have a shorter duration.

B.

needs a higher cash flow yield.

C.

has currently achieved zero replication.

解释:

C is correct. The portfolio’s Macaulay duration of approximately 4.0 matches the time horizon of the liability and can be calculated as follows:

[(Portfolio weightBond 1×DurationBond 1) + (Portfolio weightBond 2×DurationBond 2) + (Portfolio weightBond 3 × DurationBond 3)] = 3.99.

When compared with the single liability due in four years, the portfolio has the same return and duration characteristics of a single zero-coupon bond maturing in four years. The interest rate risk has been immunized, which is known as zero replication.

A is incorrect because the portfolio’s current duration matches the duration of the liability, or retirement date.

B is incorrect because the cash flow yield matches the required investment return. Although not equivalent to investment return, it is likely the portfolio’s return will meet the required rate of return.

答案提示是,The portfolio’s Macaulay duration of approximately 4.0 matches the time horizon of the liability and can be calculated as follows:

[(Portfolio weightBond 1×DurationBond 1) + (Portfolio weightBond 2×DurationBond 2) + (Portfolio weightBond 3 × DurationBond 3)] = 3.99.

但是框架图说,it is not the weighted average of duration,老师也说了应该把portfolio看成一个整体去计算,权重应该是用现金流加权,而不是组合的allocation 来加权吧?

3 个答案

pzqa31 · 2024年02月06日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


是这样的,理论上,应该用portfolio duration=∑(PVCFi/P)*t来计算portfolio mac duration,但实务中,一般会用简单的加权平均来计算,主要因为market value更容易容易获取,二者是有误差的,所以考试中看具体条件,一般给market value的情况更常见。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

pzqa31 · 2024年02月06日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


权重是各个成份债券的Market value占比,不就是allocation吗?

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

pzqa31 · 2024年01月08日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


一般就是用债券的market value做权重,同学说的现金流做权重是在哪里讲到的?

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

worldcup · 2024年02月05日

按现金流做权重 应该说的是PVD吧

daiwin18 · 2024年02月06日

Macaulay duration:it is not the weighted average of duration(框架图第5页);老师解释的原因是如果收益率曲线是upward的话,是导致现金流加权和市值加权产生差异的原因。

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