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CC · 2023年08月30日

expectation 相关

NO.PZ2023020101000021

问题如下:

High Street Investment Management is an investment subadvisory firm partnering with Registered Investment Advisors to provide counsel for options trading strategies. Scott Cummins is High Street’s CEO and chief investment officer. Phyllis Schwartz leads the client relationship team. David Spelding is a recent college graduate, who just joined the firm as an analyst. Cummings and Schwartz are conducting an introductory training session on options pricing, focusing on the binomial option valuation model (i.e., the binomial model).

Cummins begins the session by listing, in Exhibit 1, variables and values for a binomial model to illustrate an outcome.

Exhibit 1: Binomial Model Variables and Values

Schwartz states, “The one-period binomial model is based on the no-arbitrage approach in which an investor does not take any risk or use his own money. Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the probability of an up move is 45%. For an investor, the no-arbitrage approach is similar to both the expectations approach and the discounted cash flow approach. Each approach is based on the investor’s expectation regarding the future course of the underlying stock price.”

Is Schwartz’s statement about the one-period binomial model most likely correct?

选项:

A.

Yes.

B.

No, she is incorrect about the probability of an up move.

C.

No, she is incorrect about expectations of future stock prices.

解释:

Schwartz’s statement is incorrect. The expectations approach is a variation of the no-arbitrage approach to the binomial model. The results of each are identical. Under the no-arbitrage approach and the expectations approach, expected options payoffs are a function of a risk-neutral probability. The investor’s outlook with respect to the future course of the stock price is not a relevant consideration for the no-arbitrage approach or the expectations approach. The investor’s outlook with respect to the future course of the stock price is a relevant consideration for the discounted cash flow approach to securities valuation.

Schwartz’s statement with respect to the probability of an up move is correct. The calculation follows:

π=[ FV( 1 )d ]/( ud )=[ 1.02−0.75 ]/( 1.35−0.75 )=0.27/0.60=0.45=45%

老师,C选项为什么错?

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年09月02日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


Schwartz说的“Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the probability of an up move is 45%”,这个判断是对的。


Schwartz说的“Each approach is based on the investor’s expectation regarding the future course of the underlying stock price”是错的,因为no-arbitrage approach与投资者对未来的预期无关。


所以这个题目应该选C。主人公关于expectations of future stock prices的叙述是错误的。

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