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台风来了 · 2023年08月05日

关于风险对冲的策略

NO.PZ2023040601000001

问题如下:

Assume that the following one-factor model describes the expected return for portfolios:

E(Rp)=0.10+0.12βp,1E(R_p)=0.10+0.12\beta_{p,1}

Also assume that all investors agree on the expected returns and factor sensitivity of the three highly diversified Portfolios A, B, and C given in the following table:


Assuming the one-factor model is correct and based on the data provided for Portfolios A, B, and C, determine if an arbitrage opportunity exists and explain how it might be exploited.

选项:

解释:

According to the one-factor model for expected returns, the portfolio should have these expected returns if they are correctly priced in terms of their risk:

Portfolio A: E(RA) = 0.10 + 0.12βA,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(0.80) = 0.10 + 0.10 = 0.20

Portfolio B: E(RB) = 0.10 + 0.12βB,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.00) = 0.10 + 0.12 = 0.22

Portfolio C: E(RC) = 0.10 + 0.12βC,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.20) = 0.10 + 0.14 = 0.24

In the table below, the column for expected return shows that Portfolios A and C are correctly priced but Portfolio B offers too little expected return for its risk, 0.15 or 15%. By shorting Portfolio B (selling an overvalued portfolio) and using the proceeds to buy a portfolio 50% invested in A and 50% invested in C with a sensitivity of 1 that matches the sensitivity of B, for each monetary unit shorted (say each euro), an arbitrage profit of €0.22 -€0.15 = €0.07 is earned.

老师,您好!


答案解析的思路是算出其中错误定价的组合,然后short价格高并long价格低的。


我的思路如下:

Yes, there's an arbitrage opportunity. We can short 2 units of B and long 1 unit A and 1 unit C. Then, for the factor risk is hedged, but the expected return is 0.2+0.24-0.15*2 = 0.14.

即直接根据因子的敏感性对冲,short 2个B并同时long A和C各一份(或者如答案中多空都减半也行),得到的单位收益率都一样7%。


但是,感觉两种解答还是有所不同,能不能解释一下?谢谢了!

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2023年08月07日

同学你好,

两种解答没有不同。只是提问中的方案将答案的投资规模扩大为了两倍,收益也扩大为了两倍。

答案是基于1单位B来计算的,在这个基础上可以根据资金规模进行扩大,两倍,三倍,五倍,N倍都是基于一样的原理。

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