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Liam · 2018年05月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000009 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


请问为什么第一步可以直接用6%呢,不用计算出EAR再除以4吗?

另外永续年金根据公式PV=CF/r是折到哪一年呢?

感谢解答。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年05月13日

不能用你说的方法算。你目是要求用按一个季度为一个投资期进行复利。所以就要就出每个季度的利率水平并复利。

运用公式求得的永续年金求得的现值,是在第一笔现金流发生的前一年,就这题而言,就是第四季度。

不客气。

Liam · 2018年05月14日

不好意思,这句话“你目是要求用按一个季度为一个投资期进行复利。所以就要就出每个季度的利率水平并复利。”有错别字,没看懂。感谢。

源_品职助教 · 2018年05月14日

抱歉,这句应该是“题目是要求用按一个季度为一个投资期进行复利计算。”

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