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lion · 2023年04月03日

求解释

NO.PZ2016082402000064

问题如下:

Bank XYZ enters into a five-year swap contract with ABC Co. to pay LIBOR in return for a fixed 8% rate on a principal of $100 million. Two years from now, the market rate on three-year swaps at LIBOR is 7%. At this time ABC Co. declares bankruptcy and defaults on its swap obligation. Assume that the net payment is made only at the end of each year for the swap contract period. What is the market value of the loss incurred by Bank XYZ as a result of the default?

选项:

A.

$1.927 million

B.

$2.245 million

C.

$2.624 million

D.

$3.011 million

解释:

ANSWER: C

Using Equation:V=iniFiK(1+Ri)τiV=\sum_in_i\frac{F_i-K}{{(1+R_i)}^{\tau_i}} for three remaining periods, we have the discounted value of the net interest payment, or  (8%7%)×$100m=$1m\;{(8\%-7\%)}\times\$100m=\$1m discounted at 7%, which is $934,579+$873,439+$816,298 = $2,624,316.

这道题可以画图解吗?为什么每次loss1%两年不应该就是20million吗

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年04月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


这个题目让我们求由于ABC公司违约给XYZ公司造成的Swap损失的现值,由于Swap在ABC宣布破产之后只剩下3年,所以也就是计算这3年期间每年损失的利息部分的现值。


损失利息的金额是1%*100m = 1m。折现到现在:1m / (1+7%) + 1m / [(1+7%) ^2] + 1m / [(1+7%)^3] = $934,579+$873,439+$816,298 = $2,624,316.


这个就是ABC违约之后,XYZ由于无法收到Swap带来的利息差额,在剩下三年期限中的损失的现值。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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