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Miracle_ · 2023年01月29日

CF2的折现因子

NO.PZ2020033001000022

问题如下:

When conducting cash flow mapping, we need to separate the cash flows of a bond and measure the risk of the present value of each cash flow. The face value of a 2-years bond is now $ 1,000,000 with 8% interest rate paid annually, the discount rate for the same-risk 1-year zero-coupon bond is 5%, and the forward rate for the 1-2 year is 6%. What are the present values of the two cash flows of this bond?

选项:

PV of CF1
PV of CF2

A.

$75,472
$981,196

B.

$75,472
$961,196

C.

$76,190
$970,350

D.

$76,190
$979,592

解释:

C is correct.

考点:Delta-normal VaR

解析:两个现金流分别是80000和1080000,

80000对应的折现率是5%,直接用80000/1.05=76190。

1080000对应的折现率分为两期,第一期是5%,第二期是6%,用1080000/(1.05*1.06)=970350

CF2的折现因子都用spot rate,S1*S2可以吗?而不是S1*F1

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa27 · 2023年01月29日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不可以。S1和S2代表spot rate,根据1级学过的FRA的知识

其关系应该满足(1+S2)^2=(1+S1)(1+F1)

第二期的现金流可以用S2折现,也可以用S1和F1折现,但是不能用S1*S2折现,否则跟上式矛盾


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NO.PZ2020033001000022问题如下 When concting cash flow mapping, we neeto separate the cash flows of a bonanmeasure the risk of the present value of eacash flow. The favalue of a 2-years bonis now $ 1,000,000 with 8% interest rate paiannually, the scount rate for the same-risk 1-yezero-coupon bonis 5%, anthe forwarrate for the 1-2 yeis 6%. Whare the present values of the two cash flows of this bon PV of CF1 PV of CF2A.$75,472 $981,196B.$75,472 $961,196C.$76,190 $970,350$76,190 $979,592 C is correct.考点lta-normVaR解析两个现金流分别是80000和1080000,80000对应的折现率是5%,直接用80000/1.05=76190。1080000对应的折现率分为两期,第一期是5%,第二期是6%,用1080000/(1.05*1.06)=970350 请问为什么CF2折线要分别用6%和5%,不用(1+6%)^2做折现因子?

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