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magickame · 2022年10月30日

为什么不能用简化的式子做

NO.PZ2020033002000032

问题如下:

An investment manager who specializes in credit-linked bonds is trying to find the credit-linked yield spread on a one-year BB-rated coupon issued by a multinational company. With the current market risk-free rate of 2% per annum and a default rate of 8% for BB-rated bonds and a default loss rate of 70%, a reasonable yield to maturity for this bond is

选项:

A.

4.51%

B.

6.00%

C.

7.50%

D.

8.05%

解释:

D is correct.

考点:Infer Credit Risk from Corporate Bond Prices

解析:

假设收益率为y,则有公式

11+y=1(1π)1+rf+fπ1+rf\frac1{1+y}=\frac{1\ast(1-\mathrm\pi)}{1+r_f}+\frac{\mathrm f\ast\mathrm\pi}{1+r_f}

代入数字,有

1/(1+y)=(1-8%)/(1+2%)+(1-70%)*8%/(1+2%)

得到 y=8.05%

前面有题目是用简化公式做的算出来YTM-2%=8%*70%,YTM=7.6%

3 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年07月11日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


YTM-rf=pai(1-f)这个做法是简化算法,不够精确。在做题的时候应该先考虑用精确算法求解(本题就是精确算法),实在不行了才能用简化版公式求解。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年02月11日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


是的,一般来说都是先用精确算法求解,实在不行再用简化版公式求解。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

水瓶公主 · 2023年07月11日

就是不能用YTM—rf=pai(1—f)的吗

李坏_品职助教 · 2022年10月30日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


用简化版公式的一般是给的spread的值,让我们推算risk neutral PD的时候用的。spread约等于PD * LGD,这个本身就是一种不太精确的算法。


如果是给了Rf,PD和LGD让我们去求YTM,这个时候要用精确的算法了。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

小猫批脸 · 2023年02月11日

原来是这样

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