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zhouanne · 2022年10月16日

没理解

NO.PZ2019120301000096

问题如下:

Question

The following annual financial data are available for a company:


Interest expense (in millions) for the year is closest to:

选项:

A.£97.4.

B.£109.2.

C.£71.6.

解释:

Solution

A is correct. Interest expense can be determined from the following relationship:


B is incorrect. Instead of adding ending interest payable, it subtracted it, and instead of subtracting beginning interest payable, it added it.

Interest expense = Cash paid for interest – Ending interest payable + Beginning interest payable

= 103.3 – 84.5 + 90.4 = 109.2

C is incorrect, per the calculation above. Instead of adding cash paid for interest, it subtracted it, and instead of adding beginning interest payable, it added it.

Interest expense = Ending interest payable – Cash paid for interest + Beginning interest payable

= 84.5 – 103.3 + 90.4 = 71.6

base法则 int beggining等于int beginning-expse+paid

那不应该算出来是109、2吗

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2022年10月16日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,你的BASE法则中间的正负号反了 interest expense是求的当期又新增了多少interest expense的意思,所以应该是加号,而cash paid for interest则是interest payable这个科目的抵减项,应该用减号

应该是期初的interest payable +本期新增的interest expenses - 本期已经现金支付掉的interest = 期末的interest payable

带入数字就是:90.4 + 本期新增的interest expenses - 103.3 = 84.5

本期新增的interest expenses = 97.4


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